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Question

What does the maxim 'ignorantia juris non-excusat' imply?

A Ignorance of the law is always excusable

B Ignorance of the law is no excuse, and one cannot claim it as a defense for breaking the law

C Only laws that are written in public documents apply

D Knowledge of the law is not necessary to avoid liability in all cases

E The government should inform the public about the law before making it applicable

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