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      Question

      If f(g(x))= x, where f and g are inverses of each other

      and f’(x) = 1/(1+x Β² ), then g’(x) equals:
      A 1 + xΒ² Correct Answer Incorrect Answer
      B 1 + [g(x)]Β² Correct Answer Incorrect Answer
      C 1 - [g(x)]Β² Correct Answer Incorrect Answer
      D [g(x)]Β² Correct Answer Incorrect Answer

      Solution

      We are told that f and g are inverse functions , i.e., f(g(x)) = x for all x in the domain of g. Differentiate both sides with respect to x using the chain rule : β‡’ d/dx [f(g(x))] = d/dx [x] β‡’ f ′(g(x)) Β· g ′(x) = 1 Now solve for g ′(x): β‡’ g ′(x) = 1 / f ′(g(x))  … (i) We are given: f ′(x) = 1 / (1 + xΒ²) Substitute x with g(x): β‡’ f ′(g(x)) = 1 / (1 + [g(x)]Β²) Now substitute into equation (i): β‡’ g ′(x) = 1 / [1 / (1 + [g(x)]Β²)] β‡’ g ′(x) = 1 + [g(x)]Β²

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