Question
Article ‘P’, if sold at a profit of 10% earns a
profit of Rs. 600. If article ‘P’ is marked 40% above its cost price and then sold after offering two successive discounts of 18% and Rs. x, respectively then what would be the value of ‘x’ such that there is neither profit nor loss in the transaction?Solution
Let the cost price of article ‘P’ = Rs. 100y Then, according to the question, 10y = 600 Or, y = (600/10) = 60 So, cost price of article = Rs. 6000 Marked price of the article = 6000 × 1.4 = 8400 Price after 1st discount of 18% = 8400 × 0.82 = 6888 So, further discount be given = 6888 – 6000 = Rs. 888 Or, x = 888
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When a body falls freely
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